ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Free Exam Study Guide! (Updated 52 Questions)
ISO-IEC-27001-Foundation Dumps for ISO/IEC 27001 Certified Exam Questions and Answer
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which International Standard can be used to implement an integrated management system with ISO/IEC
27001?
- A. ISO/IEC 27003
- B. None of the above
- C. ISO/IEC 27013
- D. ISO 9001
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27013 provides specific guidance on theintegration of ISO/IEC 27001 (Information Security Management) and ISO/IEC 20000-1 (IT Service Management). It offers practical advice for organizations seeking a unified management system approach. While ISO/IEC 27003 (A) provides guidance on ISMS implementation, it does not address integration. ISO 9001 (C) is the Quality Management Standard and can be integrated, but the specific standard designed forintegrating 27001 with ITSMis ISO/IEC 27013.
Therefore, the correct answer isB: ISO/IEC 27013, as it is explicitly published for this purpose.
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which output is a required result from risk analysis?
- A. Risk acceptance criteria
- B. Determined levels of risk
- C. Risk treatment control options
- D. Prioritized risks for treatment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 (d) states that duringrisk analysis, the organization shall:
* "assess the potential consequences that would result if the risks identified... were to materialize;"
* "assess the realistic likelihood of the occurrence of the risks identified;"
* "determine the levels of risk."
This makes it clear that the requiredoutput of risk analysis is the determined levels of risk. Risk acceptance criteria (A) are set earlier in 6.1.2(a), treatment control options (C) belong to 6.1.3, and prioritization (D) is part of risk evaluation (6.1.2 e). Therefore, the verified correct output isB: Determined levels of risk.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which statement describes Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Defines the criteria for accepting risks
- B. Provides a reference list of information security controls and their requirements
- C. Defines a mandatory list of controls that shall be implemented
- D. Provides measures to determine risk treatment effectiveness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 is titled:
"Reference control objectives and controls." It provides areference list of information security controls, structured into 4 themes: organizational, people, physical, and technological.
The standard explicitly states in Clause 6.1.3: "Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source. Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls." This means controls in Annex A are not mandatory (eliminating option C). Risk acceptance criteria (A) are defined in Clause 6.1.2, not Annex A. Annex A also does not provide measures for treatment effectiveness (D).
Thus, Annex A is best described as areference list of information security controls. Correct answer:B.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Who determines the number of days required for a certification audit?
- A. The lead internal auditor from the organization to be audited
- B. The management representative from the organization to be audited
- C. Both the management representative and the external auditor together
- D. The external auditor from the Certification Body who will undertake the audit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Certification audits are carried out byCertification Bodies (CBs), not the organization itself. ISO/IEC 27001 requires external certification audits to be independent, impartial, and objective. According to ISO/IEC 27006 (Requirements for bodies providing audit and certification of ISMS), the Certification Body determines the audit duration and number of audit daysbased on factors such as organizational size, complexity, scope, and risk environment. This ensures consistency across organizations and prevents manipulation by the auditee. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 9.2 and 9.3 addressinternal audit and management review, but the determination of certification audit days is outside the organization's control; it rests solely with the accredited Certification Body auditors. Thus, answer: Bis correct, as the CB's external auditor formally calculates and assigns the audit time.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which statement about the conduct of audits is true?
- A. The certificate issued after a successful re-certification audit in typical schemes lasts for one year
- B. During Stage 1 of a certification audit, evidence is collected by observing activities
- C. One of the focus areas for a surveillance audit is the output from internal audits and management reviews
- D. Third party audits are conducted by a customer of the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 9.2 (Internal Audit) and Clause 9.3 (Management Review) highlight that audit outputs and management reviews are key inputs for evaluating ISMS performance. Surveillance audits, conducted by Certification Bodies, check ongoing compliance and effectiveness. ISO certification schemes (per ISO/IEC
17021) require surveillance audits to verify whether corrective actions and continuous improvements are being made. A critical focus area is theresults of internal audits and management reviews, ensuring that the organization maintains its ISMS between certification cycles.
Option A is incorrect - third-party audits are performed by independent Certification Bodies, not customers.
Option B is incorrect - certificates are typically valid forthree yearswith annual surveillance. Option D is incorrect - Stage 1 is primarily adocumentation and readiness review, not evidence observation.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 36
When are the information security policies required to be reviewed, according to the Policies for information security control?
- A. Every six months
- B. According to a schedule defined by the Certification Body
- C. Annually
- D. At planned intervals and if significant changes occur
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties, and reviewed at planned intervals and if significant changes occur." This clearly identifies the review frequency requirement: planned intervalsandwhenever there are significant changes. Options A and B (six-monthly or annually) are not prescribed by ISO - timing is left to the organization. Option C is also wrong, since Certification Bodies do not dictate policy review schedules.
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
The organization shall determine the [ ? ] of interested parties relevant to information security.
- A. influence
- B. number
- C. requirements
- D. structure
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 4.2 of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 states:
"The organization shall determine: a) interested parties that are relevant to the information security management system; b) the relevant requirements of these interested parties; c) which of these requirements will be addressed through the ISMS." This confirms that the missing word isrequirements. Neither number, structure, nor influence are specified in the standard.
NEW QUESTION # 38
What is required to be reported by the Information security event reporting control?
- A. Information disclosure
- B. Observed or suspected events
- C. Asset disposal
- D. Unauthorized access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A, control 6.8 (Information security event reporting) specifies:
"Information security events should be reported through appropriate management channels as quickly as possible. The organization should require all employees and contractors to note and report any observed or suspected information security events." This wording confirms that the required reporting covers"observed or suspected events."Specific event types like information disclosure (A) or unauthorized access (B) are examples but not the broad requirement.
Asset disposal (C) is addressed separately under equipment lifecycle controls (Annex A.7.14).
Therefore, the verified correct answer isD: Observed or suspected events.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which ISMS documentation is part of the minimum scope of documented information required to be managed and controlled?
- A. Third party information security awareness materials
- B. A statement of correspondence between other ISO standards and the ISMS
- C. Records of management decisions related to continual improvement
- D. The budget assigned to operate the ISMS and its related allocations
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 7.5 (Documented Information) specifies that organizations must maintain documentationnecessary for the effectiveness of the ISMS. Additionally, Clause 9.3 (Management Review) requires "records of decisions related to continual improvement opportunities" as an output of management review. This is a core requirement and forms part of the documented information that must be retained and controlled. Third- party materials (B), budgets (C), and cross-reference statements to other ISO standards (D) are not required by ISO/IEC 27001. Only documents that directly demonstrate compliance, decision-making, and continual improvement are mandated. Therefore, the verified minimum required documentation includesrecords of management review decisionsrelated to continual improvement, confirming answer: A.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following is required to be considered when selecting appropriate information security risk treatment options?
- A. Only risk controls in ISO/IEC 27002
- B. Only risk controls in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001
- C. Criteria for accepting identified risks
- D. Criteria for performing risk assessments
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.3 (c) requires organizations to:
"compare the controls determined in 6.1.3 b) with those in Annex A and verify that no necessary control has been omitted; and prepare a Statement of Applicability." It also requires organizations to select risk treatment options considering "the organization's risk acceptance criteria." This shows thatrisk acceptance criteriaare a fundamental factor when selecting risk treatment options.
Options C and D are incorrect because Annex A and ISO/IEC 27002 are reference sets, not the sole sources of controls - organizations can design their own. Criteria for performing risk assessments (B) are part of 6.1.2 (risk assessment process), not risk treatment.
Thus, the correct requirement isA: Criteria for accepting identified risks.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which action is an organization required to take to ensure that personnel are competent to perform their assigned tasks within the ISMS?
- A. Ensure all personnel are trained to ISO/IEC 27001 Foundation level
- B. Identify products which could be used in the organization to improve ISMS performance and effectiveness
- C. Hold up-to-date records on training, skills, experience and qualifications
- D. Ensure that the controls for compliance with legal and contractual requirements are implemented
Answer: C
Explanation:
Clause 7.2 (Competence) requires the organization to:
* "determine the necessary competence of person(s) doing work under its control that affects its information security performance;"
* "ensure that these persons are competent on the basis of appropriate education, training, or experience;"
* "retain appropriate documented information as evidence of competence." This makesholding up-to-date records on training, skills, experience, and qualifications(D) the correct answer. Option A is irrelevant to competence. Option B is incorrect since ISO does not require Foundation- level training - competence is context-based. Option C is related to compliance but does not ensure individual competence.
Thus, the verified correct answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following statements about the differences between an internal audit and a certification audit is true?
An internal audit is conducted at planned intervals and a certification audit is conducted annually An internal audit is known as a 1st party audit and a certification audit is known as a 3rd party audit
- A. Only 2 is true
- B. Only 1 is true
- C. Neither 1 or 2 is true
- D. Both 1 and 2 are true
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 9.2 requires internal audits to be conducted at planned intervals, but it does not specify an annual frequency. Certification audits, under ISO/IEC 17021 rules, typically occur on a 3-year cycle with annual surveillance, not strictly "annually." This makes statement 1 inaccurate.
Audit types are defined in ISO/IEC 19011:
First-party audits: conducted internally by or on behalf of the organization (internal audits).
Third-party audits: conducted by independent external certification bodies.
Thus, statement 2 is correct. Therefore, the accurate choice is B: Only 2 is true.
NEW QUESTION # 43
In which clause would the requirements for internal audit be found?
- A. Operation
- B. Performance Evaluation
- C. Planning
- D. Improvement
Answer: B
Explanation:
The requirements for internal audit are explicitly placed inClause 9.2 (Performance Evaluation)of ISO/IEC
27001:2022. The standard requires:
* "The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals to provide information on whether the information security management system... conforms to the organization's own requirements... and to the requirements of this document." (9.2.1)
* "The organization shall plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)..." (9.2.2) This clause clearly falls underPerformance Evaluation (Clause 9), not Planning (Clause 6), Operation (Clause 8), or Improvement (Clause 10). Therefore, the correct answer isC.
NEW QUESTION # 44
In an audit, what is the definition of an observation?
- A. An issue raised by an interested party
- B. A conformity to the standard where there is an opportunity for improvement
- C. A non-fulfilment of a requirement of ISO/IEC 27001
- D. An issue excluded from the scope of the standard
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 mandates internal audits (Clause 9.2) and continual improvement (Clause 10.1) but doesnot define the specific audit term "observation." However, the audit framework in 9.2 requires an audit programme and impartial auditors, and management review inputs include "feedback on the information security performance including trends in... audit results" and "opportunities for continual improvement
." The companion implementation guidance (ISO/IEC 27002) reinforces the concept ofopportunities for improvementin the review of policies: "The reviews should include assessing opportunities for improvement and the need for changes to the approach to information security..." In practical ISO audit usage (aligned with ISO 19011 guidance referenced in the Study Guide), anobservationis a recorded conformity where improvement is advisable-commonly termed an Opportunity for Improvement (OFI). The Study Guide's internal audit section emphasizes running an audit programme to identify "potential areas of weakness or non-compliance," supporting the notion of recording improvement opportunities alongside nonconformities. Therefore, within ISO/IEC 27001 audit practice, the best-fit definition isB: a conformity where there is an opportunity for improvement.
NEW QUESTION # 45
To whom are the information security policies required to be communicated, according to the control in Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Relevant personnel and relevant interested parties
- B. Employees within the scope of the ISMS
- C. Only staff with accountability for ISMS operation
- D. Top management
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.1 (Policies for information security) clearly specifies:
"Information security policy and topic-specific policies should be defined, approved by management, published, communicated to and acknowledged by relevant personnel and relevant interested parties..." This means the communication obligation is not limited to top management (A) or only ISMS staff (B), nor does it stop at employees only (C). Instead, ISO/IEC 27001/27002 mandate a broader scope: allrelevant personnel and relevant interested partiesmust be informed. This ensures both internal stakeholders (employees, contractors, temporary staff) and external interested parties (suppliers, partners, regulators, customers, etc.) receive the right policy communications where applicable. Therefore, the correct and verified answer isD.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which item is required to be included in an information security policy?
- A. A commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security
- B. A plan for the continual improvement of the information security management system
- C. A Statement of Applicability which defines the necessary controls to be implemented
- D. A framework enabling concerns with the information security policy to be addressed
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 5.2 (Information security policy) requires that the policy:
* "includes information security objectives (or provides a framework for setting them)"
* "includes a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security"
* "includes a commitment to continual improvement of the ISMS."
Among the listed options, the exact mandatory requirement is"a commitment to satisfy applicable requirements related to information security". Option B partially reflects Clause 5.2 (commitment to continual improvement), but the wording given in the standard prioritizes the satisfaction of applicable requirements (e.g., legal, regulatory, contractual). Option C is not a policy requirement. Option D (Statement of Applicability) is a separate mandatory document (Clause 6.1.3) and not part of the policy itself.
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 47
Which factor is required to be determined when understanding the organization and its context?
- A. Internal issues affecting the purpose of the ISMS
- B. The ISO/IEC 27001 clauses which apply to the management system
- C. The processes that will be required to operate the ISMS
- D. The information security objectives relevant to the ISMS
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 4.1 specifies exactly what must be determined when establishing context: "The organization shall determine external and internal issues that are relevant to its purpose and that affect its ability to achieve the intended outcome(s) of its information security management system." This requirement is about understanding internal and external issues (e.g., culture, capabilities, regulatory environment) that influence the ISMS's effectiveness. Objectives (option B) are addressed later in Clause 6.2; processes (option C) are addressed in Clause 4.4 and operational planning; and "which clauses apply" (option D) is not a determination step-ISO/IEC 27001's requirements in Clauses 4-10 are not optional. Therefore, the direct, required factor per 4.1 is determining internal (and external) issues relevant to the organization's purpose and ISMS outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
When planning the ISMS, the organization is specifically required to plan actions to address risks and opportunities and how to [ ? ] these actions.
- A. communicate
- B. evaluate the effectiveness of
- C. improve the effectiveness of
- D. apply competent resources to
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.1 (Planning) states:
"The organization shall plan:
d) actions to address these risks and opportunities; and
e) how to:
* integrate and implement the actions into its ISMS processes; and
* evaluate the effectiveness of these actions."
This confirms the missing words are"evaluate the effectiveness of". Communication (A), applying resources (B), and improving effectiveness (C) are important concepts elsewhere but not the direct requirement stated in this clause.
NEW QUESTION # 49
Which statement describes a purpose of monitoring, measurement, analysis and evaluation according to ISO
/IEC 27001?
- A. To ensure that employees and contractors are competent
- B. To track the use of outsourced processes
- C. To monitor the use of information assets
- D. To evaluate information security performance
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 9.1 requires:
"The organization shall evaluate the information security performance and the effectiveness of the information security management system." This is the central purpose of monitoring, measurement, analysis, and evaluation. Competence (B) is covered under Clause 7.2. Monitoring use of assets (C) and outsourced processes (D) may be done, but they are not the formal purpose described in the standard. Instead, performance evaluation ensures the ISMS continues to meet intended outcomes and supports continual improvement.
Thus, the verified purpose is A: To evaluate information security performance.
NEW QUESTION # 50
What activity is done first when preparing for an initial certification audit?
- A. Provide evidence that nonconformities from an internal audit have been actioned
- B. Provide records to the Certification Body auditor for the Stage 2 audit
- C. Agree the scope of the ISMS with the Certification Body auditor
- D. Provide documents to the Certification Body auditor for the Stage 1 audit
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27001:2022 standards and certification guidance:
Before a certification audit can begin, thescope of the ISMSmust be clearly defined and agreed with the Certification Body. ISO/IEC 27001 Clause 4.3 requires: "The scope shall be available as documented information." Certification Bodies require this scope statement to plan audit duration, resources, and coverage. Only after the scope is agreed does the Stage 1 audit begin, which reviews documented information and readiness. Stage
2 focuses on implementation and effectiveness. Evidence of corrective actions (C) is checked at Stage 2 if issues were identified earlier. Records provision (D) occurs during Stage 2, not first.
Thus, the first step in preparing for certification isA: Agreeing the scope of the ISMS with the Certification Body auditor.
NEW QUESTION # 51
Which statement describes the control for the Compliance with policies, rules and standards for information security within Annex A of ISO/IEC 27001?
- A. Regular review of compliance
- B. Maintain contact with legal authorities
- C. Return assets to their legal owners
- D. Regular review of contractual compliance
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A.5.36 (Compliance with policies, rules and standards for information security) requires:
"Compliance with the organization's information security policies, rules and standards for information security should be regularly reviewed." This directly matches option A. Option B refers to contractual compliance, which is part of supplier management controls (Annex A.5.19). Option C relates to Annex A.5.7 (Contact with authorities). Option D refers to asset return controls (Annex A.5.9).
Thus, the correct answer isA.
NEW QUESTION # 52
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