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NEW QUESTION 26
Tina is a new administrator who is currently reviewing the new Check Point R80 Management console interface. In the Gateways view, she is reviewing the Summary screen as in the screenshot below. What as an
'Open Server'?
- A. Check Point software deployed on a non-Check Point appliance.
- B. A check Point Management Server deployed using the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) Server and Security deployment model.
- C. The Open Server Consortium approved Server Hardware used for the purpose of Security and Availability.
- D. A check Point Management Server software using the Open SSL.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
NEW QUESTION 27
The R80 SmartConsole, SmartEvent GUI client, and _______ consolidate billions of logs and shows them as prioritized security events.
- A. SmartMonitor
- B. SmartView Web Application
- C. SmartTracker
- D. SmartReporter
Answer: B
Explanation:
Event Analysis with SmartEvent
The SmartEvent Software Blade is a unified security event management and analysis solution that delivers real-time, graphical threat management information. SmartConsole, SmartView Web Application, and the SmartEvent GUI client consolidate billions of logs and show them as prioritized security events so you can immediately respond to security incidents, and do the necessary actions to prevent more attacks. You can customize the views to monitor the events that are most important to you. You can move from a high level view to detailed forensic analysis in a few clicks. With the free-text search and suggestions, you can quickly run data analysis and identify critical security events.
NEW QUESTION 28
Your company enforces a strict change control policy. Which of the following would be MOST effective for quickly dropping an attacker's specific active connection?
- A. Change the Rule Base and install the Policy to all Security Gateways
- B. Block Intruder feature of SmartView Tracker
- C. Intrusion Detection System (IDS) Policy install
- D. SAM - Suspicious Activity Rules feature of SmartView Monitor
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 29
When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?
- A. Drop packet, alert, none
- B. Log, allow packets, email
- C. Log, send snmp trap, email
- D. Log, alert, none
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation: Configure Spoof Tracking - select the tracking action that is done when spoofed packets are detected:
* Log - Create a log entry (default)
* Alert - Show an alert
* None - Do not log or alert
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/ R80/CP_R80_SecMGMT/126197
NEW QUESTION 30
Which of these components does NOT require a Security Gateway R77 license?
- A. Security Management Server
- B. Check Point Gateway
- C. SmartConsole
- D. SmartUpdate upgrading/patching
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 31
A _________ VPN deployment is used to provide remote users with secure access to internal corporate resources by authenticating the user through an internet browser.
- A. Direct access
- B. Clientless remote access
- C. Clientless direct access
- D. Client-based remote access
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clientless - Users connect through a web browser and use HTTPS connections. Clientless solutions usually supply access to web-based corporate resources.
NEW QUESTION 32
Study the Rule base and Client Authentication Action properties screen.
After being authenticated by the Security Gateways, a user starts a HTTP connection to a Web site.
What happens when the user tries to FTP to another site using the command line? The:
- A. user is prompted to authenticate from that FTP site only, and does not need to enter his username and password for Client Authentication
- B. FTP connection is dropped by Rule 2.
- C. user is prompted for authentication by the Security Gateways again.
- D. FTP data connection is dropped after the user is authenticated successfully.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 33
What does it mean if Bob gets this result on an object search? Refer to the image below. Choose the BEST answer.
- A. There is no object on the database with that IP address.
- B. There is no object on the database with that name or that IP address.
- C. Search detailed is missing the subnet mask.
- D. Object does not have a NAT IP address.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 34
At what point is the Internal Certificate Authority (ICA) created?
- A. When an administrator initially logs into SmartConsole.
- B. Upon creation of a certificate
- C. When an administrator decides to create one.
- D. During the primary Security Management Server installation process.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Introduction to the ICA
The ICA is a Certificate Authority which is an integral part of the Check Point product suite. It is fully compliant with X.509 standards for both certificates and CRLs. See the relevant X.509 and PKI documentation, as well as RFC 2459 standards for more information. You can read more about Check Point and PKI in the R76 VPN Administration Guide.
The ICA is located on the Security Management server. It is created during the installation process, when the Security Management server is configured.
NEW QUESTION 35
It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.
- A. Explicit CleanUp
- B. Implicit Drop
- C. Implied Drop
- D. Explicit Drop
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/ html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80/CP_R80_SmartDashboard_OLH/NFHf4E9NLQBJlVkHRpc16w2
NEW QUESTION 36
Which of the following is NOT a back up method?
- A.
- B. Migrate
- C. System backup
snapshot - D. Save backup
Answer: D
Explanation:
The built-in Gaia backup procedures:
* Snapshot Management
* System Backup (and System Restore)
* Save/Show Configuration (and Load Configuration)
Check Point provides three different procedures for backing up (and restoring) the operating system and networking parameters on your appliances.
* Snapshot (Revert)
* Backup (Restore)
* upgrade_export (Migrate)
Reference: https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk108902
https://supportcenter.checkpoint.com/supportcenter/portal?
eventSubmit_doGoviewsolutiondetails=&solutionid=sk54100
NEW QUESTION 37
What key is used to save the current CPView page in a filename format cpview_"cpview process ID".
cap"number of captures"?
- A. Space bar
- B. H
- C. Esc
- D. C
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R80.20_GA/WebAdminGuides/EN/ CP_R80.20_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/html_frameset.htm?topic=documents/R80.20_GA/ WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R80.20_SecurityManagement_AdminGuide/204685
NEW QUESTION 38
When you upload a package or license to the appropriate repository in SmartUpdate, where is the package or license stored
- A. Security Management Server
- B. Check Point user center
- C. SmartConsole installed device
- D. Security Gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
SmartUpdate installs two repositories on the Security Management server:
* License & Contract Repository, which is stored on all platforms in the directory $FWDIR\conf\.
* Package Repository, which is stored:
- on Windows machines in C:\SUroot.
- on UNIX machines in /var/suroot.
The Package Repository requires a separate license, in addition to the license for the Security Management server. This license should stipulate the number of nodes that can be managed in the Package Repository.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Installation_and_Upgrade_Guide- webAdmin/13128.htm#o13527
NEW QUESTION 39
You have just installed your Gateway and want to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic with SmartView Monitor.
Unfortunately, you get the message:
"There are no machines that contain Firewall Blade and SmartView Monitor".
What should you do to analyze the packet size distribution of your traffic? Give the BEST answer.
- A. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Management Server.
- B. Enable Monitoring on your Security Gateway.
- C. Purchase the SmartView Monitor license for your Security Gateway.
- D. Enable Monitoring on your Security Management Server.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 40
Fill in the blank: Licenses can be added to the License and Contract repository ________ .
- A. From SmartView Monitor, from the User Center, or from a file
- B. From a file, manually, or from SmartView Monitor
- C. Manually, from SmartView Monitor, or from the User Center
- D. From the User Center, from a file, or manually
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 41
What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?
- A. CLI.sh
- B. Read-only
- C. Bash
- D. Monitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
This chapter gives an introduction to the Gaia command line interface (CLI).
The default shell of the CLI is called clish.
Reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/75697.htm
NEW QUESTION 42
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
- A. Gateway and Servers
- B. Logs and Monitor
- C. Manage Seeting
- D. Security Policies
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 43
Fill in the blank: The command __________ provides the most complete restoration of a R80 configuration.
- A. upgrade_import
- B. fwm dbimport -p <export file>
- C. cpinfo -recover
- D. cpconfig
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
(Should be "migrate import")
"migrate import" Restores backed up configuration for R80 version, in previous versions the command was " upgrade_import ".
References:
NEW QUESTION 44
Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.
What is the possible explanation for this?
- A. DNS Rule is using one of the new feature of R80 where an administrator can mark a rule with the padlock icon to let other administrators know it is important.
- B. This is normal behavior in R80 when there are duplicate rules in the Rule Base.
- C. Another administrator is logged into the Management and currently editing the DNS Rule.
- D. DNS Rule is a placeholder rule for a rule that existed in the past but was deleted.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 45
Which utility allows you to configure the DHCP service on GAIA from the command line?
- A. ifconfig
- B. dhcp_cfg
- C. cpconfig
- D. sysconfig
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Sysconfig Configuration Options
Refrence: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/CP_R76_Splat_AdminGuide/51548.htm NOTE:Question must be wrong because no answer is possible for GAIA system, this must be SPLAT version.
DHCP CLI configuration for GAIA reference: https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R76/ CP_R76_Gaia_WebAdmin/73181.htm#o80096
NEW QUESTION 46
MyCorp has the following NAT rules. You need to disable the NAT function when Alpha- internal networks try to reach the Google DNS (8.8.8.8) server.
What can you do in this case?
- A. Use the NAT settings in the Global Properties
- B. Use network exception in the Alpha-internal network object
- C. Use manual NAT rule to make an exception
- D. Disable NAT inside the VPN community
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 47
Consider the Global Properties following settings:
The selected option "Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)" means:
- A. UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed only through interfaces with external anti-spoofing topology and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
- B. All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
- C. No UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed through all interfaces and this will be done before first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
- D. All UDP Queries will be accepted by the traffic allowed by first explicit rule written by Administrator in a Security Policy.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 48
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
- A. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats
- B. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed
- C. Proactively detects threats
- D. Delivers file with original content
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 49
CPU-level of your Security gateway is peaking to 100% causing problems with traffic. You suspect that the problem might be the Threat Prevention settings.
The following Threat Prevention Profile has been created.
How could you tune the profile in order to lower the CPU load still maintaining security at good level? Select the BEST answer.
- A. Set High Confidence to Low and Low Confidence to Inactive.
- B. Set the Performance Impact to Very Low Confidence to Prevent.
- C. Set the Performance Impact to Medium or lower.
- D. The problem is not with the Threat Prevention Profile. Consider adding more memory to the appliance.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 50
Fill in the blanks: There are ________ types of software containers ________.
- A. Three; security management, Security Gateway, and endpoint security
- B. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway
- C. Three; Security gateway, endpoint security, and gateway management
- D. Two; security management and endpoint security
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
There are three types of Software Containers: Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint
Security.
NEW QUESTION 51
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Check Point 156-215.80 Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Topic | Details |
|---|---|
| SmartEvent Reports | 1.Performance-based
2.Knowledge-based
|
| Security Policy Management | 1.Performance-based
|
| Working with Cluster XL | 1.Performance-based
2. Knowledge-based
|
| Check Point Security Solutions | 1.Performance-based
|
| Managing User’s Access | 1.Performance-based
|
| Administrator Task Implementation | 1.Performance-based
2.Knowledge-based
|
| Traffic Visibility | 1.Performance-based
|
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